Question 1: The process of acquiring, deploying, and retaining a workforce of sufficient quantity and quality to create positive impact on the organization's effectiveness is called _________.
Answer
staffing
recruitment
selection
placement
Question 2: According to the overall staffing organizations model, an example of a(n) HR functional activity is _______.
Answer
HR strategy and planning
job analysis
internal recruitment
rewards
Question 3: Which of these activities is most directly associated with the employment phase of the staffing process?
Answer
screening job applications
deciding on finalists for a job
advertising a job opening
evaluating the results of a job aptitude test
Question 4: A _____________ staffing strategy would have an organization concentrate on acquiring new employees who can "hit the ground running."
Answer
pure acquisition
pure development
lead system
lag system
Question 5: Which of the following statements is not true regarding person-job match?
Answer
Jobs are characterized by their requirements and embedded rewards.
Individuals are characterized by their level of qualification.
There are implied consequences for every person-job match.
Intelligence quotation is the final determining factor.
Question 6: Which of the following strategic staffing decisions does NOT pertain to staffing quality?
Answer
person/job match
person/organization match
active or passive diversity
external or internal hiring
Question 7: In terms of the person/organization match:
Answer
the "organization" includes only tasks to be performed that are written down as part of the job description
attempts to match people to organization values should not be made
there is a concern with the "fit" of people to multiple jobs or future jobs
the person doesn't need to meet job requirements.
Question 8: To the extent that the organization wants to cultivate a stable, committed workforce, it will probably need to emphasize_____.
Answer
internal hiring
external hiring
lag system
lead system
Question 9: Which of the following statements is true regarding staffing?
Answer
The organization is the only active player in the staffing process.
The staffing process doesn't include decision making and job offers
The staffing process should only be viewed from the perspective of the individual (line) manager.
Staffing is a process that establishes and governs the flow of people into the organization.
Question 10: The purpose of retention systems is to:
Answer
attract qualified applicants to job openings in the organization
establish a good person-job match
manage the inevitable flow of employees out of the organization
establish a good person-organization match
Question 1: Which of the following are true regarding federal EEO/AA laws?
Answer
They are very narrow in their coverage of employers.
Specific agencies exist which regulate administration and enforcement.
They cover only women, minorities, and certain religious group
The EEO/AA laws don't contain specific provisions pertaining to staffing, which specify both prohibited and permissible practices.
Question 2: It can be accurately said of the "task dimension" component of a job description that it ____________.
Answer
provides a rating of task importance
is a grouping of similar tasks
indicates appropriate KSAOs
indicates the nature of KSAOs
Question 3: Using simple headcounts for forecasting and HR planning may:
Answer
overestimate work force quality
only be done with managerial employees
identify vacancies that exist when the headcount is made
misinterpret the actual work force size in terms of actual FTEs
Question 4: Markov analysis is a technique for ___________.
Answer
job analysis
availability forecasting
HR requirement forecasting
seniority estimation
Question 5: Which of the following might be the object of an internal environmental scan?
Answer
turnover
laws and regulations
economic trends
national demographics
Question 6: Which of the following is a component of a job requirements matrix?
Answer
job tenure
job pay
job context
job appraisal
Question 7: The most prevalent form of the employment relationship is_________.
Answer
independent contractor
employer-employee
temporary employee
employer-employer
Question 8: A job description is best defined as:
Answer
the organization's framework for AA compliance
the organization's indicator of tasks required for each job
the organization's principle job training tool
the organization's performance appraisal instrument
Question 9: Which of the following statements is true regarding independent contractors?
Answer
An independent contractor is a legal employee of the company which hired him/her.
Using an independent contractor increases the employer's exposure to laws and regulations governing the employment relationship.
Using an independent contractor frees an employer from the tax withholding and tax payment obligations it has for its employees.
Using an independent contractor substantially increases the right of the employer to control the contractor.
Question 10: The common law principle which states that, in the absence of any contract language to the contrary, either the employer or employee may terminate the employment relationship at any time is called_________.
Answer
employment-at-will
affirmative action
equal employment opportunity
a consent decree
Question 1: Which of the following would an effective application process do?
Answer
require applicants to specify the job applied for.
Record and file unsolicited applications for EEO/AA purposes.
Keeping applications live and on file for ever.
Report all the applicants to EEOC all the time.
Question 2:A functional manager is unlikely to use a requisition to:
Answer
specify the salary of the position to be filled.
request approval to fill an open position.
request a job analysis for a new hire.
initiate hiring procedures for positions opened because of transfers.
Question 3: Which of the following budget line items would not appear in a recruitment budget?
Answer
Benefits of the person hired
Recruiter salaries
Candidate relocation expenses
Administrative staff expenses
Question 4: Which of the following is not an administrative issue?
Answer
budgets
mobility paths
recruitment guide
requisitions
Question 5: Which of the following is not a characteristic of employment agencies?
Answer
They are a source of nonexempt employees.
They operate on a retainer fee basis.
Their references should be checked closely before using their services.
They collect, screen and present applicants to employers.
Question 6: Which of the following is the first step in the internal recruitment process?
Answer
recruitment planning
searching for internal candidates
consideration of legal issues
strategy development
Question 7:A lattice mobility path is:
Answer
characterized by upward, lateral, and downward movement.
found mostly within the external recruitment process
used in conjunction with union contracts.
concerned with management level recruitment only.
Question 8: The recruitment approach in which an organization identifies those segments of the labor market where qualified candidates are likely to be is called ___________.
Answer
targeted recruitment
job requirements matrix recruitment
geographic area recruitment
strategic recruitment
Question 9: Mobility paths are not determined by which of the following types of characteristics?
Answer
workforce
organizational
labor market
global consumer trends
Question 10: Within the external recruitment process, which of the following is most closely associated with strategy development?
Answer
Communication cost
Disclaimers
How to look for applicants
Evaluation
Question 1: Which of the following is a true statement?
Answer
true score divided by error equals actual score
actual score equals true score plus error
actual score plus error equals true score
true score equals variance plus error
Question 2: Reliability of a measure places _________.
Answer
no limit on the validity of a measure
a lower limit on the validity of a measure
an average limit on the validity of a measure
an upper limit on the validity of a measure
Question 3: Deficiency error would not indicate a failure to:
Answer
measure some portion of the attribute of interest
adequately define the attribute of interest
construct a proper measure of the totality of the attribute.
calculate the standard deviation.
Question 4: A nominal scale of measurement has _________.
Answer
rank order
an absolute true zero point
classification by categories
equal differences between points on a scale of measurement
Question 5: Comparing the same supervisor's rating of an employee's performance at T1 to T2 is a method for assessing ______ reliability.
Answer
intra-rater
fixed-point
test-retest
inter-rater
Question 6: When predictor and criterion scores have been obtained, the predictor can be considered valid if:
Answer
the correlation coefficient has the desired practical and statistical significance
the correlation coefficient has statistical significance alone.
the correlation coefficient is insignificant
the correlation coefficient has practical significance alone.
Question 7: Length in inches is an example of a(n) __________.
Answer
ratio scale
nominal scale
ordinal scale
interval scale
Question 8: Contamination error ______.
Answer
is easy to minimize and control
is the same as deficiency error
represents unwanted sources of influence on a measure
shows a lack of an acceptable coefficient alpha
Question : The larger the correlation coefficient:
Answer
the greater the practical significance.
the smaller its practical significance.
the larger its range.
the smaller its statistical significance.
Question 10: The variability of a measure is best captured by the ______________.
Answer
mean and standard deviation
range and standard deviation
range and median
mode and mean
Question 1: Tests that place applicants in hypothetical, job-related situations and ask them to choose a course of action among several alternatives are called ______________.
Answer
situational judgment tests
behavioral implementation tests
work sample tests
job simulation tests
Question 2: Which of the following methods is the most valid predictor of performance?
Answer
Initial interviews
Handwriting analysis
Biodata
Unweighted application blanks
Question 3: Which of the following is the law that governs the collection of background check information for employment purposes?
Answer
Americans with Disadvantaged Access
Fair Credit Reporting Act
Personnel Reporting Statue of 1977
National Labor Rights Act
Question 4: What are the most useful personality traits, in order, for selection contexts?
Answer
conscientiousness, emotional stability and extraversion
emotional stability, conscientiousness and openness to experience
agreeableness, openness to experience and extraversion
extraversion, conscientiousness and emotional stability
Question 5:An example of an assessment method with especially low reliability among raters is _________.
Answer
training and experience
biodata
grade point average
initial interview
initial interview
Question 6: Measures which assess an individual's capacity to function in a certain way are called _______.
Answer
interest inventories
ability tests
personality tests
knowledge tests
Question 7:Within the context of the selection process, the "logic of prediction" means that:
Answer
indicators of an applicant's future performance are predictive of likely job performance
indicators of a person's degree of success in past situations should be predictive of future job success.
predictors of job performance are correlated with KSAOs.
indicators of job outcomes can be used to predict job performance.
Question 8: Which of the following statements regarding the use of grade point averages as a predictor is true?
Answer
GPA may be influenced by many factors in addition to the applicant's KSAOs and motivation.
GPAs in one's major tend to be highly similar to one's GPAs in other classes.
Grades do not vary widely by field.
GPAs from different schools mean the same thing.
Question 9: Which of the following is true regarding genetic screening?
Answer
It helps to screen out people who will perform poorly on the job.
It is used widely by companies in the U.S.
It might be used to screen out people who are susceptible to certain diseases.
A recent court decision has ruled that it is allowable under the Americans with Disabilities Act.
Question 10: What is the most accurate description of the basic purpose of a selection plan?
Answer
A selection plan determines the means for attracting qualified job applicants.
A selection plan matches applicants to outcome criteria.
A selection plan describes predictors to be used to assess KSAOs required to perform the job.
A selection plan consists of interview rating criteria.
Question 1:An important advantage of peer assessments is:
Answer
lower probability of bias in the assessment.
greater clarity in the criteria for assessment.
enhanced employee morale through the fostering of a competitive spirit.
greater knowledge of the applicants' KSAOs.
Question 2: Which of the following factors is the most relevant to the theory behind assessment centers?
Answer
Prediction of the individual's behavior in critical roles through assessment by multiple methods.
Matching applicants to KSAOs required by the job.
Shortening the period of time needed to complete an assessment for a managerial position.
Substituting HR assessors for line management assessors.
Question 3: Research on the use of selection and experience as internal selection methods indicates that:
Answer
seniority is a more valid method of internal selection than experience.
seniority is better suited to predict short-term rather than long-term potential.
experience is less likely to be content valid' if the past or present jobs are similar to the future job
experience is unlikely to remedy initial performance difficulties of low ability employees.
Question 4: Which of the following statements about various methods of managerial sponsorship is false?
Answer
A "coach" is available to the person being assisted on and off the job.
A coach provides day-to-day feedback.
A "mentor" becomes personally responsible for the success of the person being assisted.
A "sponsor" actively promotes the person being assisted for advancement opportunities.
Question 5: The use of the case analysis method of assessment is most appropriate for assessing _____________.
Answer
ability to perform a technical task
problem-solving abilities
leadership skills
social-interactive skills
Question 6: Which of the following assessment methods has low validity?
Answer
Assessment centers
Job knowledge tests
Seniority
Promotability ratings
Question 7: Applicants' reactions to interviews tend to be __________.
Answer
very favorable
somewhat favorable
neutral
somewhat unfavorable
Question 8: If the selection objective is to assess a candidate's ability to make a coherent persuasive report about the organization's annual results before a group of top managers, the best interview simulation to make this assessment would be a(n) ________.
Answer
assessment center
in-basket exercise
role play
role play
oral presentation
Question 9: An organization which is committed to shattering the "glass ceiling" should:
Answer
decrease its use of selection plans.
emphasize the use of traditional assessment methods.
pay attention to the types of KSAOs needed for advancement.
undertake programs to raise employees' awareness of external job offers.
Question 10: The concept which refers to the idea that individuals rise to their lowest level of incompetence is the ________.
Answer
Peter Principle
Promotability Principle
Career Concept Principle
4/5 Principle
Question 1: Which of the following is true regarding seniority?
Answer
reliability is low; validity is high
reliability is high; validity is high
reliability is low; validity is low
reliability is high; validity is low
Question 2: Economic gain formulas provide the HR specialist with an estimate of the ________.
Answer
economic gain derived from using a predictor versus a random selection coefficient.
economic gain from using random selection.
economic gain of the standard deviation of job performance.
economic gain of the validity.
Question 3: When HR specialists state that a new predictor "adds value" to the prediction of job success, they mean that:
Answer
the predictor provides economic benefit to prediction.
the predictor has a high validity coefficient.
the predictor adds to the prediction of job success over and beyond the forecasting powers of current predictors.
the predictor is highly correlated with other predictors, thus increasing efficiency.
Question 4: Taylor-Russell tables are an effective decision making tool in that they:
Answer
allow for calculating selection ratios.
enable HR specialists to calculate utility ratios.
allow simultaneous consideration of a predictor's base rate, selection ratio, and validity.
help to increase validity coefficients to more acceptable levels.
Question 5: Which of the following statements about negligent hiring lawsuits against employers is accurate?
Answer
Monetary damages are usually leveled against the employee found to be at fault.
The plaintiff must present evidence the injury, or harm, was a foreseeable consequence of hiring the unfit employee.
The employer has the initial burden to present evidence of proper hiring practice in such cases.
Suits of this kind are decreasing as companies in the private sector recognize the liabilities involved.
Question 6: The sales approach to presenting a job offer has been adopted by many organizations because:
Answer
mechanical presentations of job offers have been proven not to work.
they apply to all situations.
they cost less than mechanical presentations.
they may increase the likelihood of bringing job offers to closure.
Question 7: Under which circumstances is "hiring success gain" likely to be optimal?
Answer
Low selection ratio, high base rate, high validity
High selection ratio, high base rate, high validity
High selection ratio, low base rate, high validity
High selection ratio, low base rate, low validity
Question 8: With which of the following methods are discretionary assessments least likely to be used?
Answer
Ranking
Random selection
Clinical prediction
Grouping
Question 9: Which of the following is the most difficult to estimate term in the economic gain formula?
Answer
Average tenure of employees.
Number of applicants.
Dollar value of job performance.
Dollar value of job performance.
Cost per applicant.
Question 10: Which of the following is likely to be a contingency related to a job offer?
Answer
Satisfactory reference checks
Job salary
Job benefits
Job vacation privileges
Question 1: What is the primary difference between mediation and arbitration?
Answer
Arbitration is generally more time consuming than mediation.
Arbitrators only consult with both sides, whereas mediators issue a binding decision.
Mediation typically involves at least four parties.
Mediators only consult with both sides, whereas arbitrators issue a binding decision.
Question 2: The effectiveness of recruitment activities to attract people to the organization is reflected in the ____________.
Answer
applicant/vacancy ratio
yield ratio
time lapse ratio
retention rate
Question 3: Which of the following is an example of a minor employee offense?
Answer
dishonesty
unsafe behaviors
punctuality
bad behaviors
Question 4: Which of the following must report to the EEOC annually?
Answer
all employers
private employers with over 100 employees (50 for federal contractors)
private employers with over 1000 employees (500 for federal contracts)
only organizations with federal contracts
Question 5: What proportion of disputes that begin with the EEOC mediation process are eventually resolved through mediation?
Answer
fewer than 10%
more than 10%, but fewer than half
more than half
the EEOC has no mediation procedure
Question 6: The desirability of leaving an organization is often an outgrowth of __________.
Answer
poor person/organization match
favorable labor market conditions
general, transferable KSAOs
development of an organization
Question 7: Replacement costs associated with voluntary turnover include ___________.
Answer
HR staff induction costs
mentoring
severance pay
contagion
Question 8: Which of the following is true regarding jobs in staffing?
Answer
Entry into staffing jobs normally occurs at the generalist rank.
There is usually a fixed point of entry into staffing jobs.
Jobs in staffing are becoming increasingly customer focused and facilitative in nature.
Few are housed in the HR department
Question 9: The first strategy for improving employee retention is to ______________.
Answer
redesign employee jobs
increase pay
improve job satisfaction
increase compensation
Question 10:Economic costs associated with downsizing include ____________.
Answer
threat to harmonious labor-management relations
decreased employee morale
higher unemployment insurance premiums
difficulty in attracting new employees
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